Can it be inferred from John Milton's Paradise Lost, that by invoking the Muse in book 1, he wanted to reject biblical literalism (despite the Muse being the Holy Spirit, which itself formed the Bible)?
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Can it be inferred from John Milton's Paradise Lost, that by invoking the Muse in book 1, he wanted to reject biblical literalism (despite the Muse being the Holy Spirit, which itself formed the Bible)?